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Message started by hck on 31.03.2009 at 10:15:15

Title: CFP: Is logic universal?
Post by hck on 31.03.2009 at 10:15:15

The following CFP, which I received via H-IDEAS is not renaissance specific, but it deals with a number of questions which probably many of us the members and users of this forum here (not least those interested in renaissance Dialectics) have posed themselves (and answered one way or an other for themselves and for the potential benefit of their students):

Quote:
Is logic universal?

Call for papers

Special issue of the journal Logica Universalis (Birkhauser/Springer)

http://www.birkhauser.ch/LU

There will be a special issue of the journal logica universalis
dedicated to the question "Is logic universal?"

Many questions are connected to this issue:
1. Do all human beings have the same capacity of reasoning?
Does a man, a woman, a child, a papuan, a yuppie, reason in the same way?
2. Does reasoning evolve?
Did human beings reason in the same way two centuries ago?

In the future will human beings reason in the same way?
Did computers change our way to reason?
Is a mathematical proof independent of time and culture ?
3. Do we reason in different ways depending on the situation?
Do we use the same logic for everyday life, physics, economy?
4. Do the different systems of logic reflect the diversity of reasonings?

5. Is there any absolute true way of reasoning ?

Any contibutions dedicated to one aspects of the question "Is logic
universal?" is welcome.
Submit your paper to
universal.logic@ufc.br<https://webmail.ufc.br/src/compose.php?send_to=universal.logic%40ufc.br>
before August 31st 2009


(I bolded the passages which IMO are the most relevant ones.)

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